MSBTE 311305 Basic Science Chemistry IMP MCQs with Answers PDF

MSBTE 'K' Scheme 1st Semester Basic Science: "Chemistry" Practice MCQs with Answers PDF. This MCQs is base on your MSBTE Basic Science Syllabus All Units and All Topics Covered in this Section.

1st Semester Basic Science: "Chemistry":-

Chemical bonding MCQs with Answers
Electro chemistry and Metal Corrosion, its prevention MCQs with Answers
Engineering Materials and Catalysis MCQs with Answers

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4. Chemical Bonding

1. Which one of them is the weakest?

(a) Ionic bond

(b) Covalent bond

(d) van der Waals force

Ans: (d)

Solution: Among them van der Waals force is the weakest force.

2. The bond angle around atom which uses sp2 hybridization is ———–

(a) 1200

(b) 1800

(d) 1090. 28’

Ans: (a)

Solution: The bond angle around an atom which uses sp2 hybridization is 1200.

3. In the resonating structures of benzene, the number of sigma and pi bonds are

(a) 3π and 12σ

(b) 3σ and 3π

(d) 12σ and 12π

Ans: (a)

Solution: In Benzene (C6H6) ring contain 3 alternative double bond = 3π bonds and (six C-C sigma bond + six C-H sigma bond) = 12 σ bonds

4. Which of the following substances has a dipole moment more than zero?

(a) Water

(b) Methane

(d) Nitrogen

Ans: (a)

Solutions: The dipole moment (μ) of H2O = 1.84 D

5. The ion which is iso-electronic with CO is —————

(a) CN–

(b) O2–

(d) O2+

Ans: (a)

Solution : Both CO (6 + 8=14) and CN– (6 + 7+1= 14) have the same electrons. so they are iso-electronic with each other.

6. The correct bond order in the following species is —————.

(a) O2+ < O2– < O22+

(b) O2– < O2+ < O22+

(d) O22+ < O2– < O2+

Ans: (b)

Solution: The correct one is O2– < O2+ < O22+ , bond order is 1.5 < 2.5 < 3.0 respectively.

7. Which of the following molecules have trigonal planar geometry?

(a) BF3

(b) NH3

(d) IF3

Ans: (a)

Solution: BF3 has trigonal planar geometry. The hybridization of BF3 is sp2 hybridization.

8. During change of O2 to O22- ion, the electron adds on which of the following orbitals?

(a) σ* orbital

(b) π orbital

(d) π* orbital

Ans: (d)

Solution: The incoming electrons added to π* orbital in the change of O2 to O22- ion.

9. In which of the following pairs, the two molecules have identical bond orders:

(a) N2 , O22+

(b) N2 , O2–

(d) O22- , N2

Ans: (a)

Solution: Both N2 and O22+ have bond order equal to 3.0.

10. Ionic bonds will be formed more easily between elements with comparatively:

(a) low ionization enthalpy and high electron affinity

(b) high ionization enthalpy and high electron affinity

(d) high ionization enthalpy and low electron affinity

Ans: (a)

Solution: Ionic bonds will be formed more easily between elements with low ionization enthalpy and high electron affinity.

11. C-O bond length is minimum in

(a) CO2

(b) CO32-

(d) CO

Answer: (d)

12. Molecules are held together in a crystal by

(a) hydrogen bond

(b) electrostatic attraction

(d) dipole-dipole attraction

Answer: (c)

13. Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], find its geometry

(a) octahedral geometry

(b) square planar geometry

(d) tetrahedral geometry

Answer: (a)

14. Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment

(a) CH4

(b) NH3

(d) NF3

Answer: (b)

15. MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at 180°?

(a) four

(b) two

(d) six

Answer: (c)

16. Find the pair with sp2 hybridisation of the central molecule

(a) NH3 and NO2–

(b) BF3 and NH2–

(d) NH2– and H2O

Answer: (c)

17. The formal charge and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively are

(a) 0.6, -0.75

(b) -0.75, 1.25

(d) 1.25, -3

Answer: (b)

18. Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?

(a) SO3

(b) SO2

(d) CS2

Answer: (d)

19. pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule

(a) SO32-

(b) CO32-

(d) BO33-

Answer: (a)

20. Which one has a pyramidal shape?

(a) SO3

(b) PCl3

(d) NO3–

Answer: (b)

21. Atoms obtain octet configuration when linked with other atoms. This is said by _________

a) Lewis

b) Kossel

c) Langmuir

d) Sidgwick

Answer: a

22. Find out the correct Lewis symbol for the atom carbon among the following options.

a) .C:

b) :C.

c) :C:

d) .C.

Answer: c

23. What’s the group valance of atoms in the halogen family?

a) 2

b) 1

c) 9

d) 7

Answer: b

24. Highly electropositive Alkali metals are separated from highly electronegative halogens by _________

a) noble gases

b) oxygen family

c) f-block elements

d) 7th period

Answer: a

25. Sharing or transfer of electrons from one atom to the other to attain stable octet configuration follows _______

a) Duet rule

b) Triplet rule

c) Octet rule

d) Septet rule

Answer: c

26. In the covalent bond, atoms share electrons to achieve octet configuration.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

27. Which of the following molecule doesn’t involve covalent bond?

a) H2O

b) CCl4

c) NaCl

d) O2

Answer: c

28. Calculate the formal charge of C in CH4.

a) 4

b) 1

c) -4

d) 0

Answer: d

29. Which of the following doesn’t follow octet rule?

a) CH4

b) CCl4

c) HCl

d) NO2

Answer: d

30. Calculate the formal charge of the middle atom in the ozone molecule.

The formal charge of the middle atom in the ozone molecule

a) 1

b) -1

c) 0

d) -2

Answer: a

31 Which of the following species has maximum number of lone-pair of electrons on the central atom ?

a) XeF2

b) H3O+

c) XeF4

d) XeF6

Answer: XeF2

32 PCl5 is highly unstable and in solid state it exists as into [PCl4]+ and [PCl6]- ions. The geometry of [PCl6]- is

a) octahedral

b) tetrahedral

c) square pyramidal

d) square planar

Answer: octahedral

33 In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in d2sp3-hybridisation is

a) dx2−y2, dz2

b) dxy, dx2−y2

c) dz2, dxz

d) dxy, dyz

Answer: dx2−y2, dz2

34 Which of the following is isoelectronic ?

a) CO2, NO2

b) NO−2, CO2

c) CN−, CO

d) SO2, CO2

Answer: CN−, CO

35 The dielectric constant of H2O is 80. The electrostatic force of attraction between Na+ and Cl- will be

a) reduced to 1/40 in water than in air

b) reduced to 1/80 in water than in air

c) will be increased to 80 in water than in air

d) will remain unchanged

Answer: reduced to 1/80 in water than in air

36 The correct order of C-O bond length among CO, CO2−3, CO2 is

a) CO2 < CO2−3< CO

b) CO = CO2 < CO2−3

c) CO2−3< CO2 < CO

d) CO < CO2 < CO2−3

Answer: CO < CO2 < CO2−3

37 In which one of the following molecules, the central atom said to adopt sp2 hybridisation ?

a) BeF2

b) BF3

c) C2H2

d) NH3

Answer: C2H2

38 In which of the following pairs, the two species are isostructural ?

a) SF4 and XeF4

b) SO2−3 and NO−3

c) BF3 NF3

d) BrO−3 and XeO3

Answer: BrO−3 and XeO3

39 In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimise :

a) lone pair-bond pair repulsion

b) bond pair-bond pair repulsion

c) lone pair-lone pair repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion

d) lone pair-lone pair repulsion

Answer: lone pair-lone pair repulsion

40 In which of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridisation which is not the same as that present in the other three ?

a) SF4

b) I−3

c) SbCl2−5

d) PCl5

Answer: SbCl2−5

41 In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?

a) ClF3

b) BF3

c) AlF3

d) NF3

Answer: ClF3

42 Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4?

a) SCl4

b) SO42-

c) PO43-

d) NH4+

Answer: SCl4

43 Which one of the following is not paramagnetic ?

a) NO

b) N+2

c) CO

d) O−2

Answer: CO

44 Which of the following two are isostructural?

a) XeF2, and IF2-

b) NH3, and BF3

c) CO32-, and SO32-

d) PCl5, and ICl5

Answer: XeF2, and IF2-

45. C-O bond length is minimum in

(a) CO2

(b) CO32-

(d) CO

Answer: (d)

46. Molecules are held together in a crystal by

(a) hydrogen bond

(b) electrostatic attraction

(d) dipole-dipole attraction

Answer: (c)

47. Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], find its geometry

(a) octahedral geometry

(b) square planar geometry

(d) tetrahedral geometry

Answer: (a)

48. Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment

(a) CH4

(b) NH3

(d) NF3

Answer: (b)

49. MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at 180°?

(a) four

(b) two

(d) six

Answer: (c)

50. Find the pair with sp2 hybridisation of the central molecule

(a) NH3 and NO2–

(b) BF3 and NH2–

(d) NH2– and H2O

Answer: (c)

51. The formal charge and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively are

(a) 0.6, -0.75

(b) -0.75, 1.25

(d) 1.25, -3

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?

(a) SO3

(b) SO2

(d) CS2

Answer: (d)

53. pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule

(a) SO32-

(b) CO32-

(d) BO33-

Answer: (a)

54. Which one has a pyramidal shape?

(a) SO3

(b) PCl3

(d) NO3–

Answer: (b)

55. _______ holds the molecules in a crystal.

a) Electrostatic attraction

b) Van-der Waal’s attraction

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Dipole-dipole attraction

Ans. (B) Van-der Waal’s attraction

56. Ionic bonds will be formed more easily between the elements comparatively:

a) low ionization enthalpy and high electron affinity

b) high ionization enthalpy and high electron affinity

c) low ionization enthalpy and low electron affinity

d) high ionization enthalpy and low electron affinity

Ans. (A) low ionization enthalpy and high electron affinity

57. Which of the following substance has a dipole moment more than zero?

a) Methane

b) Water

c) Carbon dioxide

d) Nitrogen

Ans. (B) Water

58. Out of the following molecules, which one has trigonal planar geometry?

a) NH3

b) BF3

c) PCl3

d) IF3

Ans. (B) BF3

59. Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], Find its geometry.

a) tetrahedral geometry

b) square planar geometry

c) tetragonal geometry

d) octahedral geometry

Ans. (D) octahedral geometry

60. What will be the value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 7

d) 9

Ans. (A) 3

61. An atom of element A comprises three electrons in its outermost orbit and an atom of element B has six electrons in its outermost orbit. The formula of the compound between these two will be

a) A3B6

b) A2B3

c) A3B2

d) A2B

Ans. (B) A2B3

62. In the formation of the molecule, which of the following will take part in the chemical combination?

a) cation

b) anion

c) valence electron

d) inner shell electron

Ans. (C) valence electron

63. The total number of nodal planes in σ×s antibonding orbitals is

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

Ans. (B) 1

64. The most polar bond is

a) C – F

b) C – S

c) C – Br

d) C – O

Ans. (A) C – F

65. Which is the Correct Geometry and Hybridisation of XeF4?

a) Octahedral, sp3d2

b) Square planar, sp3d2

c) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d2

d) Planar triangle,sp3d3

Ans. (B) Square planar, sp3d

65. ____ Is Supposed to Be the Number of X – M – X Bonds at 180° if MX6 is a Molecule That Has an Octahedral Geometry?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 6

Ans. (B) 3

66. Out of the following options, the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound:

a) MgCl2

b) FeCl2

c) SnCl2

d) AlCl3

Ans. (D) AlCl3

67. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction is present in

a) benzene and ethanol

b) acetonitrile and acetone

c) KCl and water

d) benzene and carbon tetrachloride

Ans. (B) acetonitrile and acetone

68. In the resonating structures of benzene, the number of sigma and pi bonds are

a) 3π and 12σ

b) 3σ and 3π

c) 6σ and 6π

d) 12σ and 12π

Ans. (A) 3π and 12σ

5. Electron Chemistry and Metal Corrosion, its Prevention

1. Rusting of iron is a type of corrosion.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

2. What is the method of protection of iron by coating it with zinc called?

a) Tinning

b) Cathodic protection

c) Galvanization

d) Anti-rust solutions

Answer: c

3. Which of the following statements regarding corrosion is true?

a) Corrosion does not depend on the reactivity of the metal

b) Presence of impurities does not affect the rate of corrosion

c) Strains in metals affect the rate of corrosion

d) Presence of electrolytes does not affect the rate of corrosion

Answer: c

4. Magnesium is used as a sacrificial metal to protect iron from rust.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

5. Which of the following does not cause rusting of iron?

a) Moisture

b) Vacuum

c) SO2

d) CO2

Answer: b

6. Which of the following is not a method of prevention of corrosion?

a) Galvanization

b) Anti-rust solutions

c) Cathodic protection

d) Heating

Answer: d

7. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Salt water decelerates the rate of corrosion

b) Magnesium is more active than iron

c) During galvanization, ZnCO3.Zn(OH)2 is formed which prevent further corrosion

d) Anti-rust solutions are used in car radiators to prevent rusting of iron parts of the engine

Answer: a

8. Which of the following is not essential for rusting to take place?

a) Metal (like iron)

b) Oxygen

c) Moisture

d) Light

Answer: d

9. Which of the following is the overall reaction of rusting?

a) 2Fe(s) → 2Fe2+ + 4e–

b) O2 (g)+4H+(aq)+4e–⟶2H2O(l)

c) 2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + 2H2O(l)

d) H2O ⇌ H+ + OH–

Answer: c

10. Which of the following metal does not corrode?

a) Iron

b) Zinc

c) Copper

d) Magnesium

Answer: c

11. For a second-order reaction, what is the unit of the rate of the reaction?

a) s-1

b) mol L-1s-1

c) mol-1 L s-1

d) mol-2 L2 s-1

Answer: c

12. The rate constant of a reaction is k=3.28 × 10-4 s-1. Find the order of the reaction.

a) Zero order

b) First order

c) Second order

d) Third order

Answer: b

13. For a reaction A +B → C, the experimental rate law is found to be R=k[A]1[B]1/2. Find the rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.5 M, [B] = 0.1 M and k=0.03.

a) 4.74 × 10-2 (L/mol)1/2 s-1

b) 5.38 × 10-2 (L/mol)1/2 s-1

c) 5.748 × 10-2 (L/mol)1/2 s-1

d) 4.86 × 10-2 (L/mol)1/2 s-1

Answer: a

14. The reaction NO2 + CO → NO + CO2 takes place in two steps. Find the rate law.

2NO2 → NO + NO3 (k1) – slow

NO3 + CO → CO2 + NO2 (k2) – fast

a) R = k1 [NO2]3

b) R = k2 [NO3] [CO]

c) R = k1 [NO2]

d) R = k1 [NO2]2

Answer: d

15. For the reaction A + H2O → products, find the rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.75 M, k= 0.02.

a) 0.077 s-1

b) 0.085 s-1

c) 0.015 s-1

d) 0.026 s-1

Answer: c

16. What is the rate law for acid hydrolysis of an ester such as CH3COOC2H5 in aqueous solution?

a) k [CH3COOC2H5]

b) k [CH3COOC2H5] [H2O]

c) k [CH3COOC2H5]2

d) k

Answer: a

17. What is the concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction when the rate of the reaction is 0.6 s-1 and the rate constant is 0.035?

a) 26.667 M

b) 17.143 M

c) 26.183 M

d) 17.667 M

Answer: b

18. How many times will the rate of the elementary reaction 3X + Y → X2Y change if the concentration of the substance X is doubled and that of Y is halved?

a) r2= 4.5r1

b) r2= 5r1

c) r2= 2r1

d) r2= 4r1

Answer: d

19. What is the rate law for the reaction C2H4 + I2 → C2H4I2?

a) R= [C2H4] [I2]3/2

b) R= [C2H4] [I2]3

c) R= [C2H4] [I2]2

d) R= [C2H4] [I2]

Answer: a

20. The rate law for the reaction involved in inversion of cane sugar is R=k [C12H22O11] [H2O].

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

21. Rate of a reaction depends on the ΔH of the reaction.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

22. Which of the following is not a direct factor affecting the rate of a reaction?

a) Temperature

b) Presence of catalyst

c) Order of reaction

d) Molecularity

Answer: d

23. Which of the following will lead to an increase in the rate of the reaction?

a) Decrease in temperature

b) Decreasing concentration of reactants

c) Addition of catalyst

d) Addition of inhibitor

Answer: c

24. A catalyst only increases the rate of the reaction in the forward direction.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

25. What happens to the rate of the reaction on increasing its temperature?

a) Rate of reaction increases

b) Rate of reaction decreases

c) Rate of reaction fluctuates between its maxima and minima

d) Rate of reaction is independent of temperature

Answer: a

26. Which of the following laws state that the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of reactants?

a) Henry’s law

b) Law of conservation of mass

c) Law of mass action

d) Dalton’s law

Answer: c

27. What happens to the value of ΔG of a reaction when a catalyst is added to it?

a) It increases

b) It decreases

c) It remains unchanged

d) It is undefined on adding a catalyst

Answer: c

28. What is the change in the rate of a second order reaction when the concentration of the reactant is increased by 2 times its initial value?

a) It doubles

b) No change

c) It quadruples

d) It triples

Answer: c

29. When the two reactants are in the same phase, then which common phase will ensure that the products are formed at the fastest pace?

a) Solid

b) Liquid

c) Gas

d) The rate of a reaction is independent of the phase of the reactants

Answer: c

30. Which of the following is a factor that automobile engines use to increase the rate of its internal reactions?

a) Concentration of fuel

b) Viscosity of the fuel

c) Surface area of the reactants

d) Nature of the fuel

Answer: c

31. The rate constant of a reaction is 0.01s-1, how much time does it take for 2.4 mol L-1 concentration of reactant reduced to 0.3 mol L-1?

a) 108.3s-1

b) 207.9s-1

c) 248.2s-1

d) 164.8s-1

Answer: b

32. What time does it take for reactants to reduce to 3/4 of initial concentration if the rate constant is 7.5 x 10-3 s-1?

a) 38.4s

b) 40.2s

c) 39.3s

d) 36.8s

Answer: a

33. A zero-order reaction is 25% complete in 30seconds. What time does it take for 50% completion?

a) 40s

b) 70s

c) 50s

d) 60s

Answer: d

34. What is the integrated rate equation for a first order reaction?

a) [A] = [A]0e-kt

b) [A] = [A]0/e-kt

c) [A] = [A]0e-t

d) [A] = [A]0e-k

Answer: a

35. For a certain reaction the values of Arrhenius factor and Activation energy are 4 x 1013 collision/sec and 98.6KJ/mol at 303K. Calculate the rate constant if reaction is 1st order?( R=8.341mol-1K-1)

a) 6.07 x 10-3

b) 3.02 x 10-5

c) 4.07 x 10-4

d) 7.42 x 10-3

Answer: c

36. The decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 solution was studied. N2O5 → 2NO2 + 1/2O2. The rate constant of the reaction is 6.2 x 10-4 sec-1. Calculate the rate when the concentration of N2O5 is 1.25 molar.

a) 6.45 x 10-4

b) 7.45 x 10-4

c) 6.75 x 10-4

d) 7.75 x 10-4

Answer: d

37. What is the formula to calculate the time taken for the completion of a zero-order reaction?

a) t100% = [A]0/k

b) t100% = [A]0/2k

c) t100% = 2[A]0/k

d) t100% = [A]0/3k

Answer: a

38. The unit of rate constant of a first-order reaction is s-1.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

39. The unit of the rate constant of a zero-order reaction and second-order reaction is same.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

40. The half-life of a given reaction is doubled if the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled. What is the order of the reaction?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

Answer: a

41. A first-order reaction was 70 percent complete in 20 minutes. What is the rate constant of the reaction?

a) 0.07 min-1

b) 0.06 min-1

c) 0.08 min-1

d) 0.09 min-1

Answer: b

42. What is the time taken to complete 75 percent of the reaction if the rate of the first-order reaction is 0.023 min-1?

a) 60.28 minutes

b) 69.28 minutes

c) 50.37 minutes

d) 65.97 minutes

Answer: a

43. For the reaction X → Y + Z, the rate constant is 0.00058 s-1. What percentage of X will be decomposed in 50 minutes?

a) 90.02 percent

b) 82.44 percent

c) 88.82 percent

d) 82.67 percent

Answer: b

44. What is the time required for 75 percent completion of a first-order reaction?

a) 3 × t50

b) 4 × t50

c) 4.5 × t50

d) 2 × t50

Answer: d

45. A first-order reaction is 50 percent complete in 30 minutes. Calculate the tme taken for completion of 87.5 percent of the reaction.

a) 30 minutes

b) 60 minutes

c) 90 minutes

d) 120 minutes

Answer: c

47. Which type of corrosion takes place evenly throughout a material's whole surface?

a) Galvanic corrosion

b) Intergranular corrosion

c) Pitting corrosion

d) Uniform corrosion

Answer: D) Uniform corrosion

48. When two distinct metals or alloys come into touch with each other in the presence of an electrolyte, which of the following is corrosion?

a) Galvanic corrosion

b) Intergranular corrosion

c) Pitting corrosion

d) Soil corrosion

Answer: A) Galvanic corrosion

49. Which of the following is not true about corrosion?

a) Corrosion is only restricted to metallic materials

b) Corrosion is an electrochemical reaction

c) Material selection is essential in corrosion prevention

d) Environmental factors have a considerable influence on corrosion

Answer: A) Corrosion is only restricted to metallic materials.

50. Metal corrosion can be accelerated by the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere?

a) True

b) False

Answer: A) True

Explanation: Metal corrosion can be accelerated by the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere.

51. Which of the following corrosion can occur in the absence of oxygen?

a) Galvanic corrosion

b) Intergranular corrosion

c) Pitting corrosion

d) Uniform corrosion

Answer: B) Intergranular corrosion

52. In most situations, ____ metals corrode easily due to their low corrosion resistance.

a) Active metals

b) Passive metals

c) Nobel metals

Answer: A) Active metals

53. Which of the following metals can create a protective oxide layer on their surface, acting as a barrier against further corrosion?

a) Active metals

b) Passive metals

c) Nobel metals

Answer: B) Passive metals

54. Which of the following is not true about noble metals?

a) Nobel metals have a low electron-loss propensity

b) In the presence of most corrosive substances, Nobel metals become unstable

c) Noble metals have the greatest corrosion resistance

d) They are very inert and corrosion-resistant

Answer: B) In the presence of most corrosive substances, Nobel metals become unstable.

55. High temperatures ____ the rusting process.

a) Increasing

b) Decrease

c) No effect

Answer: A) Increasing

56. Smooth surfaces are more corrosion-resistant than rough surfaces?

a) True

b) False

Answer: A) True

57. Which of the following is True about anode in corrosion engineering terms?

a) The anode is the electrode or metal surface where reduction happens during corrosion

b) The anode is the metal surface or electrode where oxidation occurs during corrosion

Answer: B) The anode is the metal surface or electrode where oxidation occurs during corrosion.

58. The creation of a thin, protective oxide coating on the surface of a metal that offers resistance to subsequent corrosion is known as ____.

a) Pickling

b) Electropolishing

c) Plating

d) Passivation

Answer: D) Passivation

59. What is the abbreviation of MIC?

a) Micro-integrated corrosion

b) Micro-infected corrosion

c) Microbiologically influenced corrosion

d) Microorganism-infected corrosion

Answer: C) Microbiologically influenced corrosion

60. Which of the following type of bonds happen as electrons travel from one atom to another, resulting in the production of positive and negative ions?

a) Metallic bond

b) Covalent bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Ionic bond

Answer: D) Ionic bond

61. ____ bonds develop when two atoms share electron pairs.

a) Metallic bond

b) Covalent bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Van der Waals force bond

Answer: B) Covalent bond

62. In comparison to covalent or ionic bonding, hydrogen bonds are ____.

a) Comparatively strong

b) Comparatively weak

c) Same

Answer: B) Comparatively weak

63. What kinds of bonds are present in ceramics and polymers?

a) Metallic bond

b) Covalent bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Van der Waals force bond

Answer: B) Covalent bond

64. Which of the following has a high corrosion resistance?

a) Homogeneous Alloy

b) Heterogenous Alloy

Answer: A) Homogeneous Alloy

65. A metal can undergo ____ corrosion if submerged in a corrosive liquid or environment.

a) General attack corrosion

b) Atmospheric corrosion

c) High-temperature corrosion

d) Immersion corrosion

Answer: D) Immersion corrosion

66. Which of the following metal is resistant to corrosion?

a) Titanium

b) Zinc

c) Magnesium

d) Iron

Answer: A) Titanium

67. Which of the following is True about fatigue crack?

a) A fatigue crack is a crack that forms in a material as a result of constant stress

b) A fatigue crack is a crack that forms in a material as a result of non-repetitive cyclic loading

c) A fatigue crack is a crack that forms in a material as a result of repetitive cyclic loading

d) A fatigue crack is a crack that forms in a material as a result of repetitive non-cyclic cyclic loading

Answer: C) A fatigue crack is a crack that forms in a material as a result of repetitive cyclic loading.

68. Which graph depicts the connection between an applied potential or current density and the corrosion rate that results?

a) Polarization Curve

b) Pourbaix Diagram

c) Corrosion Rate vs. Time

d) Corrosion Rate vs. Velocity

Answer: A) Polarization Curve

69. Which of the following conditions must exist for electrochemical corrosion to take place?

a) The presence of an electrolyte, which might be a liquid or a wet environment, is required for electrochemical corrosion

b) Corrosion is characterized by the creation of an electrochemical cell composed of an anode, a cathode, and an electrolyte

c) Both

Answer: C) Both

70. Corrosion inhibitors tend to be ____ effective at lower temperatures.

a) More

b) Less

Answer: A) More

71. Which of the following statement is true about Corrosion caused by differential aeration?

a) Corrosion caused by differential aeration happens when the nitrogen concentration varies over the metal surface

b) Corrosion caused by differential aeration happens when the hydrogen concentration varies over the metal surface

c) Corrosion caused by differential aeration happens when the oxygen concentration varies over the metal surface

Answer: C) Corrosion caused by differential aeration happens when the oxygen concentration varies over the metal surface.

72. Which of the following type of corrosion is an example of Corrosion caused by differential aeration?

a) Pitting corrosion

b) Galvanic corrosion

c) Uniform corrosion

d) Intergranular corrosion

Answer: A) Pitting corrosion

73. What is the other name for dry corrosion?

a) Uniform corrosion

b) Atmospheric corrosion

c) Crevice corrosion

d) Differential corrosion

Answer: B) Atmospheric corrosion

74. Which of the following is a slow process?

a) Dry corrosion

b) Wet corrosion

Answer: A) Dry corrosion

75. Mainly how many types of corrosion inhibitors are there?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 2

d) 3

Answer: D) 3

76. Chromates, nitrates, and molybdates are examples of which type of inhibitors?

a) Anodic

b) Cathodic

c) Mixed

Answer: A) Anodic

77. The ____ series is a classification of metals and semimetals based on their nobility.

a) Electrochemical series

b) Galvanic series

Answer: B) Galvanic series

78. In which series, do metals have a fixed position?

a) Electrochemical series

b) Galvanic series

Answer: A) Electrochemical series

79. Are thermoplastics resistant to corrosion?

a) Yes

b) No

Answer: A) Yes

80. What is the chemical formula of high-density polyethylene (HDPE)?

a) (CH2) n

b) (C3H6)n

c) (C2H3Cl)n

d) (CH2F2)n

Answer: A) (CH2) n

81. What is the chemical formula of Polypropylene (PP)?

a) (CH2) n

b) (C3H6)n

c) (C2H3Cl)n

d) (CH2F2)n

Answer: B) (C3H6)n

82. Which of the following is not true about Thermosetting materials?

a) Chemical resistance is excellent in thermosetting materials

b) Thermosets are not resistant to heat

c) Electrical insulation is provided by thermosetting polymers

d) Thermosetting materials are resistant to impact

Answer: B) Thermosets are not resistant to heat.

83. Does Thermosetting materials offer adhesive characteristics?

a) Yes

b) No

Answer: A) Yes

84. Which of the following is an example of Thermosetting materials?

a) Phenolic resins

b) Melamine resins

c) Epoxy resins

d) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

85. Higher sulphuric acid concentrations can ____ corrosion rates.

a) Increase

b) Decrease

Answer: A) Increase

86. Which is widely employed as a sacrificial anode in applications involving water-immersed steel structures, such as pipelines?

a) Aluminium

b) Titanium

c) Iron

d) Zinc

Answer: D) Zinc

87. Metals having higher negative potentials are corroded ____.

a) Faster

b) Slower

c) No effect

Answer: A) Faster

88. Alloying elements can ____ corrosion resistance.

a) Worsen

b) Improve

Answer: B) Improve

89. Electroless plating is also known as ____.

a) Auto-generated plating

b) Principle integrating plating

c) Electron less plating

d) Autocatalytic plating

Answer: D) Autocatalytic plating

90. An external electrical current is not required for ____ plating.

a) Electroplating

b) Electroless plating

Answer: B) Electroless plating

91. Which allows for more control over the dispersion of metal ions?

a) Electroplating

b) Electroless plating

Answer: A) Electroplating

92. Which of the following aid in the management of paint viscosity, ensuring appropriate application and reducing sagging or leaking?

a) Deformers

b) Thickeners

c) Rheology modifiers

d) Wetting agents

Answer: B) Thickeners

93. Which of the following has the slower deposition rate?

a) Electroless plating

b) Electroplating

c) None

Answer: A) Electroless plating

94. What type of corrosion will occur in a situation where a steel pipe has been buried underground in corrosive soil?

a) Soil corrosion

b) Pitting corrosion

c) Uniform corrosion

d) Immersion corrosion

Answer: A) Soil corrosion

95. Which type of Corrosion occurs when oxygen and moisture are present, causing localized attack?

a) Soil corrosion

b) Pitting corrosion

c) Uniform corrosion

d) Immersion corrosion

Answer: B) Pitting corrosion

96. What is the chemical name of rust?

a) Hydrated Ferro oxide

b) Hydrated ferric oxide

c) Hydrated ferrous oxide

Answer: B) Hydrated ferric oxide

6. Engineering materials and catalysis

1. Which of the following is a basic classification of Engineering Materials?

a) Metals

b) Non-Metals

c) Both Metals & Non-Metals

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

2. Which of the following is not a property of engineering materials?

a) Mechanical properties

b) Chemical properties

c) Polymorphism

d) Electrical properties

Answer: c

3. Which of the following is a type of Engineering Materials and is a Metal?

a) Asbestos

b) Ferrous Metals

c) Non-Ferrous Metals

d) Both b & c

Answer: d

4. Which of the following attributes explain why pure metals are not frequently used in engineering applications?

a) Softness

b) Hardness

c) Brittleness

d) Luster

Answer: a

5. Which of the following is an example of a thermoplastic?

a) Melamine

b) Epoxide

c) Urethane

d) Acetal

Answer: d

6. Which of the following class of engineering ceramics generally includes lubricant materials?

a) Metalloids

b) Intermetallics

c) Sulphides

d) Carbides

Answer: c

7. Which of the following is not a property of fiberglass?

a) Nonflammable

b) Reinforcement for plastics

c) Thermal insulation

d) Organic

Answer: d

8. On average, what is the maximum use temperature of engineering ceramics?

a) 2860oC

b) 6815oC

c) 3400oC

d) 2760oC

Answer: d

9. How is the creep strength of ceramics when compared to other materials?

a) Low

b) High

c) Excellent

d) Zero

Answer: c

10. Which of the following factors affect the mechanical properties of a material under applied loads?

a) Grain size

b) Shape of material

c) Content of alloys

d) Imperfection and defects

Answer: b

11. On which of the following materials the compressive test is done?

a) Aluminum

b) Thermocole

c) Cast iron

d) Gold

Answer: c

12. Which of the following term is used to define the temperature at which a substance changes its status from solid to liquid?

a) Melting point

b) Freezing point

c) Boiling point

d) Condensation point

Answer: a

13. Which of the following materials are usually used for Electrolysis?

a) Silicon, antimony

b) Silver, tin

c) Zinc, cadmium

d) Aluminum, nickel

Answer: b

14. Which of the following processes is not an application of thermoelectric effect?

a) Peltier effect

b) Ettingshausen effect

c) Seebeck effect

d) Thomson effect

Answer: b

15. Which of the following materials are to be tested using an F-scale?

a) Bronze, gunmetal, and beryllium copper

b) Thermoplastics

c) Case hardened steels

d) Copper and brass

Answer: d

16. Which of these is not a function of alloy steels?

a) Improves ductility

b) Improves machinability

c) Increases strength

d) Reduces cost

Answer: d

17. How does the Vicker’s hardness test differ from Brinell’s?

a) Type of indenter

b) Materials to be tested

c) Load applied

d) Duration of indentation

Answer: a

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of alumina?

a) Poor wear resistance

b) Good toughness

c) Good tensile strength

d) Excellent hardness

Answer: d

19. Which of the following is the primary element used for making stainless steel alloy?

a) Vanadium

b) Indium

c) Chromium

d) Zirconium

Answer: c

20. What disadvantage does silicon carbide have?

a) Thermal conductivity

b) Tensile strength

c) Cost

d) Oxidation resistance

Answer: c

21. Which of the following is not a classification of aluminum alloys?

a) Cast alloys

b) Heat-treatable alloys

c) Wrought alloys

d) Crucible alloys

Answer: d

22. High conductivity copper is used ______

a) To raise softening temperature

b) In electrical engineering

c) To manufacture semiconductor elements

d) To reduce porosity

Answer: b

23. Which brass alloy is suitable for high-speed machining?

a) High tensile brass

b) Gilding metal

c) Muntz metal

d) Leaded brass

Answer: d

24. Which of the following type of bearing bronze is the weakest?

a) Phosphorus bronze

b) Leaded bronze

c) Sintered bronze

d) Plain tin bronze

Answer: b

25. Magnalium is an alloy of magnesium, ________

a) Nickel and Zinc

b) Nickel and Tin

c) Zirconium and Zinc

d) Zinc and Tin

Answer: b

26. Which of the following polymer additive is used to remove parts from molds?

a) Reinforcements

b) Lubricants

c) Stabilizers

d) Plasticizers

Answer: b

27. Which of the following carbides are used for cutting tools?

a) Chromium carbide

b) Silicon carbide

c) Tungsten carbide

d) Vanadium carbide

Answer: c

28. Which of the following is not a type of protective coating?

a) Non-metallic

b) Metallic

c) Inorganic

d) Organic

Answer: a

29. Which of the following is an example of soft magnetic material?

a) Strontium

b) Neodymium

c) Permalloy

d) Alnico

Answer: c

30. Which of the following is an example of organic insulating material?

a) Asbestos

b) Slag

c) Wood-pulp

d) Charcoal

Answer: c

31. Which of the following is a characteristic of asbestos minerals?

a) Heat resistance

b) Reacts with acids

c) Poor strength

d) Poor bonding

Answer: a

32. Which of the following is not a method of fabrication of rubber?

a) Vacuum forming

b) Buffing

c) Calendering

d) Compression molding

Answer: b

33. What is the result of full annealing of hypoeutectoid steels?

a) Cementite

b) Coarse pearlite

c) Silicon

d) Bainite

Answer: b

34. Which among the following is not an amorphous material?

a) Lead

b) Glass

c) Rubbers

d) Plastics

Answer: a

35. Based on the important category, concrete and fibre glass are the examples of ___________

a) Ceramics

b) Polymers

c) Composites

d) Semi-conductors

Answer: c

36. Which of the following is not an inorganic functional material?

a) Ferroelectric

b) Reverse micelles

c) Magnetic field sensor

d) Light detectors

Answer: b

37. Which of the following is not an aerospace material?

a) Plastics

b) Silica

c) Aluminium alloys

d) Polymers

Answer: d

38. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

a) Metals are extremely good conductors of heat and electricity

b) The properties of metal degrade rapidly with temperature

c) Metals have poor corrosion resistant

d) A polished metal surface has a dull appearance

Answer: d

39. Which one of the following is the best heat and corrosion resistant material?

a) Metals

b) Ceramics

c) Polymers

d) Semi-conductors

Answer: b

40. Polymers are used in the chemical industry because of their ___________

a) Inert nature

b) Light weight

c) Low cost

d) Easiness in fabricability

Answer: a

41. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

a) Composites are optically opaque materials

b) Carbon fiber reinforced composite materials are not used in space vehicles

c) Re-cyclability of composite material is poor

d) Processing of composite material is difficult

Answer: b

42. Which type of material expands and contract in response to an applied electric field?

a) Advanced material

b) Smart material

c) Biomaterial

d) Nanomaterial

Answer: b

43. Which one of the following is non-linear material?

a) Zirconium oxide

b) Magnetite

c) Maghemite

d) Lithium niobate

Answer: d

44. Which of the following is not an application of nanomaterials?

a) TV and computer monitors

b) Cardiology

c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

d) Sunscreens and fuel cells

Answer: b

45. Which type of cement possesses hydraulic qualities?

a) Natural

b) Puzzolona

c) Slag

d) Portland

Answer: a

46. Select the incorrect statement from the following options.

a) Puzzolona is the oldest cement invented by Romans

b) Natural puzzolona is deposit of volcanic ash

c) Puzzolona was used in making concrete for the construction of walls and domes

d) Puzzolona is quite setting cement and posses relatively low strength

Answer: d

47. Blast furnace slag is the mixture of ___________

a) Slaked lime and calcium silicate

b) Aluminium silicate and hydrated lime

c) Calcium silicate and aluminium silicate

d) Silica, alumina and calcium oxide

Answer: c

48. Portland cement is made by calcining at temperature equals to ___________

a) 30000C

b) 15000C

c) 18000C

d) 20000C

Answer: b

49. Why Gypsum is added after calcination in the manufacture of Portland cement?

a) To prevent flash setting

b) To improve the quality of cement

c) To increase the lime saturation factor

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

49. Who is recognized as the “Father of the modern Portland cement industry”?

a) Emil Abderhalden

b) Richard Abegg

c) Peter Agre

d) William Aspdin

Answer: d

50. All portland cements are hydraulic cement because they ___________

a) Set and harden in the absence of water

b) Set and harden in the presence of water

c) Do not harden after mixing water

d) None of the mentioned option

Answer: b

51. The percentage composition of alumina in Portland cement is ___________

a) 60-69

b) 17-25

c) 3-8

d) 2-4

Answer: c

52. Which compound causes the cement efflorescent, if present in excess?

a) Iron oxide

b) Alkali oxide

c) Sulphur trioxide

d) Lime

Answer: b

53. Which compound imparts grey color, strength and hardness to the portland cement?

a) Iron oxide

b) Alumina

c) Magnesium oxide

d) Silica

Answer: a

MSBTE 311305 Basic Science Chemistry IMP MCQs with Answers PDF | MSBTE 'K' Scheme

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